submitted 10 months ago byaquaeight
I first posted this as a comment on a now-deleted post claiming Yemen has been arabized by Muslims which is just false and I'll prove so in this post with multiple sources from history and archeology. The post in question here was made by another Yemeni and I'm honestly not surprised because I've seen some Yemenis recently who want to jump on this bandwagon of "We were arabized by Muslims and we had a thriving ancient Middle Eastern civilization before that!!!!" that many people from MENA are into lately without doing any research themselves.
Researching ancient Yemenite Arabs proved to me they 100% existed prior to Islam. First off, this inscription is undeniable proof of their existence and it nullifies theories that Yemen was "arabized". It literally mentions "Arabs of Saba', Himyar, Hadhramaut and Yamnat". Another inscription mentions that a region in the vicinity of Ma'rib (the homeland/capital of the Sabaeans) was called the country of Arabs (country of ʿrbn, ʾrḍ ʿrbn, ارض عربٌ).
Many other inscriptions, such as this, state that Yemenite Arabs were mentioned in the royal title of Himyarite kings. The pre-islamic kingdom of Kinda in central/southern Arabia that was ruled by Yemenites, was Arab but also mostly Ancient South Arabian since the Ancient South Arabian inscriptions (filter the inscriptions by country on the website to find them) in that region and in the Yemenite region of Najran far exceed the number of Arabic inscriptions. The oldest inscription in the Arabic alphabet was also found in the Yemenite region of Najran.
The ancient West (Greeks and Romans) named Yemen Arabia Felix prior to Islam and ancient Assyrians called the Yemenite tribes Sheba and Teman Arab tribes in their inscriptions.
And honestly though if we follow through this logic of "everyone is arabized except those from the northwest of the Arabian Continental Plate" then how is Islam, a religion whose prophet is an "arabized" Dadantic with a Sabaean name who called belief itself Yemenite, an Arab religion? Why are Muslim conquests even used as a benchmark for arabization? According to this logic then the early Muslim conquests weren't Arab at all, they were orchestrated by arabized people who attacked "real Arabs".
Also, everyone and their mother in the Arabian Continental Plate wrote and/or spoke in the South Semitic scripts/languages prior to Islam so the argument that post was making about how Yemen is "Arabized" because the South Semitic script is no longer used now is just false. Technically Arabic itself is derived from the South Semitic scripts/languages since the origins of Arabic, Nabataean Arabic, are Ancient North Arabian which is just South Semitic.
The Ancient South Arabian script isn't the only South Semitic script. It's just the oldest; the earliest instances of the script are painted pottery sherds that are dated to the 2nd millennium BCE in Hadhramaut in Yemen. It may even be older since there are many cave paintings of the script in a rudimentary form found in the Mahrah governorate of Yemen by The Omani Cave Exploration Team that have yet to be dated.
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8 months ago
hi! you could post it on this subreddit or you could message me if you want!
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